A client has been prescribed a first-generation anticonvulsant for treatment of partial seizure disorder. Upon visiting the clinic, she revealed to the nurse that she has not been compliant with the medication because she has experienced uncomfortable cognitive side effects. After discussing this with the team, a decision was made to start the client on a second-generation anticonvulsant. What is the rationale behind this?
a. Second-generation anticonvulsants have fewer side effects and usually do not require drug level monitoring.
b. First-generation anticonvulsants have fewer side effects and usually do not require drug level monitoring.
c. Third-generation anticonvulsants are too expensive.
d. Fourth-generation anticonvulsants are saved for use as a last resort.
a. Second-generation anticonvulsants have fewer side effects and usually do not require drug level monitoring.
FEEDBACK:
a. Uncomfortable side effects and the need for blood level monitoring are often causes for medication noncompliance.
b. First-generation anticonvulsants tend to have more side effects and usually require drug level monitoring. .
c. A third generation of anticonvulsants does not exist at this time. .
d. A fourth generation of anticonvulsants does not exist at this time. .
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