A female client has been prescribed norethindrone (Micronor) as an oral contraceptive. What is the best explanation by the nurse in terms of how this medication is used to prevent pregnancy?
1. It produces a thick, viscous mucus at the entrance to the uterus that prevents penetration by sperm.
2. It terminates pregnancy.
3. It increases ovulation.
4. It prevents ovulation.
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: The progestin-only oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy primarily by producing a thick, viscous mucus at the entrance to the uterus that prevents penetration by sperm.
Rationale 2: Terminating pregnancy is incorrect because progestin-only contraceptives do not terminate a pregnancy.
Rationale 3: Increasing ovulation is incorrect because progestin-only contraceptives do not increase ovulation.
Rationale 4: Preventing ovulation is incorrect because progestin-only contraceptives do not prevent ovulation.
Global Rationale: The progestin-only oral contraceptives prevent pregnancy primarily by producing a thick, viscous mucus at the entrance to the uterus that prevents penetration by sperm. Terminating pregnancy is incorrect because progestin-only contraceptives do not terminate a pregnancy. Increasing ovulation is incorrect because progestin-only contraceptives do not increase ovulation. Preventing ovulation is incorrect because progestin-only contraceptives do not prevent ovulation.
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