A couple has been experiencing infertility for 4 years. After becoming pregnant using the zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT) procedure, the woman is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy
The health care provider opts to manage the condition with methotrexate. Which of the following is most likely the rationale for managing the condition in this manner? 1. Methotrexate will best enable the woman to retain her fertility.
2. Methotrexate will reduce the likelihood that this type of complication will occur in future pregnancies.
3. The use of methotrexate will reduce the woman's risk of pelvic inflammatory disease.
4. Methotrexate will reduce the risk of surgical-related adhesions.
Methotrexate will best enable the woman to retain her fertility.
Rationale: Methotrexate is a nonsurgical method to manage unruptured ectopic pregnancies. The use of the medication can enable the condition to be treated without surgical intervention. Methotrexate has no impact on the reduction of future ectopic pregnancies or surgical adhesions. There is no relationship between the use of this medication and pelvic inflammatory disease.
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