A nonresponsive 25-year-old man is being evaluated. He collapsed several hours after being struck in the head during a bar fight. This individual has most likely suffered from which of the following?
A. Epidural hemorrhage
B. Epidural hematoma
C. Subdural hematoma
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
ANS: B
Rationale: An epidural hematoma occurs as a result of arterial bleeding between the skull and dura matter. This bleeding usually occurs when the middle meningeal artery is torn by a fracture of the temporal and/or parietal bone. As a result of rapid arterial bleeding, signs and symptoms develop swiftly—usually within several hours. In contrast, signs and symptoms of subdural hematoma develop over days or months because of low pressure venous bleeding. Subarachnoid hemorrhage usually produces a sudden excruciating headache accompanied by a brief loss of consciousness.
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