When reviewing the documentation of patients on the unit, a nurse determines that one of the patients is at higher risk for injury from a local heat application to an extremity. Which condition poses this risk?
a. Arthritis
b. Renal calculi
c. Pulmonary disease
d. Peripheral neuropathy
D
Patients with diabetes, victims of stroke or spinal cord injury, and patients with peripheral neuropathy and rheumatoid arthritis are particularly at risk for thermal injury. Arthritis, renal calculi, and pulmonary disease do not increase the patient's risk for thermal injury.
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What technique should the nurse use to assess the point of maximal impulse (PMI)?
A. With the client in a supine position at a 45-degree angle, compress the upper right abdomen for 30 to 40 seconds and observe for neck vein distention. B. Measure the blood pressure in both upper arms. The arm with the highest pressure should be used for blood pressure measurement thereafter. C. Apply the bell of the stethoscope over the skin of the carotid artery while the client holds his or her breath. D. With the client in the supine position, inspect the chest for prominent precordial pulsations.
Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is an acute febrile reaction associated with treatment for ____________________
Fill in the blank(s) with correct word
What disorder of the anus, rectum, or prostate is mostly likely in this case?
A 45-year-old African-American minister comes to your clinic for a general physical examination. He has not been feeling very well for about 3 months, including night sweats and a chronic low-grade fever of 100 to 101 degrees. He denies any upper respiratory symptoms, chest pain, nausea, constipation, diarrhea, blood in his stool, or urinary tract symptoms. He has had some lower back pain. He has a past history of difficult-to-control high blood pressure and high cholesterol. He has had no surgeries in the past. His mother has diabetes and high blood pressure. He knows very little about his father because his parents divorced when he was young. He knows his father died in his 50s, but he is unsure of the exact cause. The patient denies smoking, drinking, or drug use. He is married and has three children. On examination he appears his stated age and is generally fit. His temperature is 99.9 degrees and his blood pressure is 160/90. His head, ears, nose, throat, and neck examinations are normal. His cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are also normal. On visualization of the anus there is no inflammation, masses, or fissures. Digital rectal examination elicits an irregular, asymmetric, hard nodule on the otherwise normal posterior surface of the prostate. Examination of the scrotum and penis are normal. Laboratory results are pending.
The resident writes an order for D5W to infuse intravenously at 125 mL/hr. Does this order
concern you? If so, why? What will be an ideal response?