Which statement accurately describes the purpose of sedation vacation for a patient to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia?
1. The vacation from sedation relieves stress, which decreases the chance of infection.
2. During sedation vacation the patient has a chance to take deep breaths and improve ventilation while more awake.
3. The patient's own tidal volume and respiratory rate can be evaluated during sedation vacation.
4. New data show that sedation vacation is no longer recommended because there is concern about the safety of interrupting sedation.
3
Rationale 1: Sedation vacation is necessary to accurately measure tidal volume and respiratory rate, which are criteria to assess readiness to extubate.
Rationale 2: This is not the purpose of a sedation vacation.
Rationale 3: Mechanical ventilation is discontinued sooner when close attention is given to measuring tidal volume and respiratory rate, which occurs during a sedation vacation. Evidence indicates that appropriate use of daily interruption of sedation to determine readiness to wean decreases the patient's time on a ventilator.
Rationale 4: There is concern among some nurses about the safety of interrupting sedation; therefore, most institutions have specific policies outlining for whom and when sedation interruption should be attempted.
You might also like to view...
You are caring for a client newly admitted to the unit with a diagnosis of lymphangitis. What interventions would you institute to help promote the resolution of the lymphangitis? Select all that apply
A) Apply ice to the area. B) Note the response to antibiotic therapy. C) Encourage independent activities of daily living. D) Elevate the area. E) Apply warm soaks/compresses to the area.
Which of these is pregnancy broken up into?
1) Three semesters 2) Three trimesters 3) Three terms 4) Three quarters
Older adults require more dietary vitamin D than younger adults because
a. breakdown of vitamin D is increased. b. absorption of vitamin D is less efficient. c. their skin is less able to synthesize vitamin D. d. body fat levels are higher, and vitamin D is fat soluble.
A client has decided to use the oral contraceptive norethindrone (Ortha Micronor). How can the nurse most accurately explain the way progestin-only contraceptives help to prevent pregnancy?
1. "Progestin-only pills thicken the cervical mucus and discourage the sperm from entering the uterus." 2. "The pill you have decided to take prevents the egg that is in the ovary from becoming mature." 3. "These pills prevent ovulation just like the combination pills do." 4. "Pills that contain progestin alone prevent pregnancy by preventing the release of follicle-stimulating hormones (FSH)."