Approximately 1 week following her menstrual period, a 33-year-old female complains of bilateral lower abdominal quadrant pain, vaginal discharge, and fever. This clinical presentation is MOST consistent with:
A. an ovarian cyst.
B. an ectopic pregnancy.
C. pelvic inflammatory disease.
D. a spontaneous abortion.
Answer: C. pelvic inflammatory disease.
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The best initial intervention for an open pneumothorax is:
a. seal the wound with a gloved hand b. occlusive dressing taped on four sides c. rapid recognition and transportation d. needle decompression–second intercostal space
If an Rh-negative female conceives a child with an Rh-positive male, what is the chance their fetus will be Rh-positive?
A. 10 percent B. 30 percent C. 50 percent D. 75 percent
The E/M code ____________________ is assigned for a level 2 office visit of an established patient
Fill in the blank(s) with correct word
When will a primary care physician typically refer a patient to a specialist?
- when the patient disagrees with the physician's findings - when the services required are outside of the physicians scope of practice - when the physician is too busy to see the patient - when the patient requires a routine checkup