Using the fixed-time-period inventory model, and given an average daily demand of 200 units, 4 days between inventory reviews, 5 days for lead time, 120 units of inventory on hand, a z of 1.96, and a standard deviation of demand over the review and lead time of 3 units, which of the following is the order quantity?
A. About 2,686
B. About 1,086
C. About 1,806
D. About 1,686
E. About 2,206
Answer: D
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For which of the following accounts receivable customer populations would the use of negative confirmations be most appropriate?
a. A retail truck and trailer sales company with high inherent risk and moderate control risk over the revenue cycle. b. A utility company with control risk over the revenue cycle assessed high. c. A mortgage banking company with excellent control over the purchasing cycle. d. A cable company with control risk over the revenue cycle assessed low.
Mary's Fine Fashions Mary's Fine Fashions manufactures and sells various types of women's clothing. At the end of 2011, Mary had estimated for the production and sale of 25,000 short-sleeve shirts. Each shirt has a standard calling for 2.5 yards of direct material at a standard rate of $1.25 per yard and 12 minutes of direct labor time at a standard rate of $.20 per minute. During 2012, the
company actually produced and sold 23,000 shirts. These 23,000 shirts had an actual direct materials cost of $77,142 (59,340 yards at $1.30 per yard) and an actual direct labor cost of $63,250 (253,000 minutes at $.25 per minute). Each shirt sells for $20. Refer to the Mary's Fine Fashions information above. What is Mary's flexible budget variance? A) $14,475 F B) $28,950 U C) $42,267 F D) $13,317 U
When Jerry took delivery of his brand new Karuaf automobile, he was filled with pleasure and excitement as Karuaf is a very expensive brand. This is an example of the__________effect associated with the price-quality relationship
Fill in the blanks with correct word.
The common defense available in a Section 11 action of the Securities Act of 1933 is:
A) The private placement defense. B) The reasonable person defense. C) The de facto compliance defense. D) The no injury to plaintiff defense. E) The due diligence defense.