A patient underwent abdominal surgery for a ruptured appendix. The surgeon did not surgically close the wound. The wound healing process described in this situation is:
1) Primary intention healing.
2) Secondary intention healing.
3) Tertiary intention healing.
4) Approximation healing.
ANS: 2
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In response to a patient's nausea, the nurse has mixed a dose of an antiemetic with 50 mL of sterile normal saline and will administer the dose by IV piggyback. What is the rationale for the use of IV piggyback?
A) The patient is receiving continuous IV fluids in addition to IV medications. B) The patient must be continuously monitored to gauge the effect of the medication. C) The patient has failed to adhere to the prescribed treatment regimen. D) The patient's electrolyte levels are volatile.
The nurse is assessing a client's susceptibility to rejecting a transplanted kidney. Which result does the nurse recognize as increasing the client's chances of rejection?
a. Decreased T-lymphocyte helper b. Decreased white blood cell count c. Increased cytotoxic-cytolytic T cell d. Increased neutrophil count
A client has a history of hypothyroidism. Which laboratory value is the nurse most concerned about?
a. Na+ 146 mEq/L b. K+ 3.6 mEq/L c. Ca2+ 8.2 mg/dL d. Mg2+ 1.1 mEq/L
While the nurse is assisting a patient recovering from epidural anesthesia to ambulate, the patient becomes dizzy and has a blood pressure of 78/48 mmHg. What actions should the nurse take?
Select all that apply. 1. Notify the anesthesiologist. 2. Notify the pharmacy to obtain atropine. 3. Continuously monitor blood pressure. 4. Prepare to administer intravenous fluids. 5. Prepare to administer vasoactive medications.