XYZ is a yacht maker and has not sold a yacht under its mark SAILSHIP in three years (which is often typical in this industry). Would such nonuse of the mark be an abandonment of the mark? Discuss.?
What will be an ideal response?
Ordinarily, three years of nonuse of a mark constitutes abandonment of the mark. However, if one sale every three years is typical in the industry for these expensive goods, then such use as is customary in the yacht business might well be sufficient.?
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