For studies published earlier than 1973 on gender differences in verbal ability, d = ?0.23, whereas for studies published after 1973, d = ?0.10. Although we cannot be certain about what caused this narrowing of the gender gap, explain one possibility for it.
What will be an ideal response?
One possibility is that gender role socialization practices became more flexible over those decades, and a result is a reduction in the size of gender differences. Another possibility is that those who produce standardized tests have become more sensitive about gender equity issues, resulting in tests that show reduced gender differences.
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