The physician has ordered intravenous (IV) phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse does not read the drug label and administers the medication intramuscularly (IM). What is the most likely response in the patient?
1. Local tissue damage following extravasation will most likely occur.
2. A phenomenon known as purple gluteus syndrome will most likely occur.
3. A marked decrease in serum glucose levels will most likely occur.
4. Nothing adverse, the medication may be administered intravenously (IV) or intramuscularly (IM).
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale: Phenytoin (Dilantin) injectable is a soft-tissue irritant that causes local tissue damage following extravasation. It should not be administered intramuscularly, but should be given intravenously into a large vein or via a central catheter. There isn't any such thing as purple gluteus syndrome; purple glove syndrome occurs when phenytoin (Dilantin) is administered in a hand vein, and causes a serious local vasoconstrictive response. Phenytoin (Dilantin) causes an increase in serum glucose.
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