Refer to Exercise 21. Is it possible for the probability that both gauges fail to be greater than 0.01? Explain.

What will be an ideal response?


No. P(both gauges fail) = P(first gauge fails) P(second gauge fails|first gauge fails).
Since P(second gauge fails|first gauge fails) ? 1, P(both gauges fail) ? P(first gauge fails) = 0.01.

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What will be an ideal response?

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