A patient who exhibits both positive and negative signs of schizophrenia has tried a number of medications without success due to intolerable side effects. How would the nurse categorize the next logical drug choice for this patient? Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected. Standard Text: Select all that apply
1. As a dopamine-serotonin system stabilizer
2. As an atypical drug
3. As a conventional drug
4. As a third generation drug
5. As a second generation drug
1,2,4
Rationale 1: Dopamine-serotonin system stabilizers were developed due to side effects of previously developed drugs.
Rationale 2: The drug of choice will control both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia; therefore, it is an atypical drug.
Rationale 3: Conventional drugs treat only the positive signs of schizophrenia.
Rationale 4: Third generation antipsychotics are used when drugs from a lower generation are ineffective.
Rationale 5: Second class antipsychotics do not have the properties needed by this patient.
Global Rationale: Dopamine-serotonin system stabilizers were developed due to side effects of previously developed drugs. The drug of choice will control both positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia; therefore, it is an atypical drug. This class of drugs is sometime considered a third generation of antipsychotics. Conventional drugs treat only the positive signs of schizophrenia.
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