Compare and contrast implicit prejudice and explicit prejudice. Which do you think is "real" (if either), and why?
What will be an ideal response?
a . Possible Response Points:
i. Implicit prejudice is prejudice that can be inferred (e.g., based on behaviors) though it need not be directly stated or consciously recognizable. Explicit prejudice, by contrast, is prejudice about which the prejudiced person is conscious. Implicit prejudice might take the form of (unconsciously) sitting farther away from one group than another, or having a certain type of "knee-jerk" reaction to a member of one group versus another, while explicit prejudice might take the form of explicitly stating disdain for a particular group or of visibly protesting against a particular group.
ii. Interestingly, at least in the contemporary U.S. (where explicit prejudice is generally viewed as unacceptable), implicit prejudice tends to do a better job of predicting things like workplace discrimination than does explicit prejudice.
iii. Notably, the two forms of prejudice have been found to be weakly correlated and in some cases completely uncorrelated: Apparently, one does not need to consciously have a prejudice against certain groups in order to have implicit negative feelings about them.
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