A 68-year-old male has visited his family physician because the size of his scrotum has increased exponentially in recent months. He has subsequently been diagnosed with an inguinal hernia

Which of the following statements best captures the nature of his health problem?
A)
Part of his intestine and parietal peritoneum are protruding through the inguinal opening.
B)
Rupture of the tunica vaginalis has allowed a part of his small bowel to protrude into the intrascrotal space.
C)
Incomplete closure of the inguinal opening during his development has contributed to testicular hypertrophy and hyperplasia.
D)
Occlusion of the efferent ductules and epididymis causes massive dilation of the testes.


Ans:
A

Feedback:

An inguinal hernia is the protrusion of intestine and peritoneum into the scrotum through an incompletely sealed inguinal opening. The tunica vaginalis, occlusion of the duct system, nor testicular hypertrophy and hyperplasia contribute to the etiology.

Nursing

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