Discuss why the following criteria are not completely satisfactory in defining abnormality: psychological dysfunction, digress, and "culturally expected" behavior
What will be an ideal response?
Psychological dysfunction is not totally satisfactory because behavior is on a continuum, and a milder version of impairment would not meet the criteria for a disorder. As for personal distress, by itself, this criterion does not define abnormal behavior because distress can be a normal reaction to a traumatic situation. Also, for some of the psychological disorders, by definition, suffering and distress are absent. Atypical or not culturally accepted are insufficient when they refer to someone such as a person with an exceptionally high IQ who is atypical but not disordered. Culturally unacceptable is not sufficient because what may be atypical in one culture is perfectly acceptable in another.
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Indicate whether the statement is true or false
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