A 41-year-old male client is planning on having a vasectomy. While explaining this surgery to the client, the health care worker will include which physiologic principle as the basis for this contraception technique?
A) "Spermatogenesis is inhibited because sex hormones no longer stimulate the Sertoli cells."
B) "Spermatozoa can no longer reach the epididymis and do not survive."
C) "The rete testis becomes inhospitable to sperm."
D) "Sperm can no longer pass through the ductus deferens."
Ans: D
Feedback:
When the male ejaculates, the smooth muscle in the wall of the epididymis contracts vigorously, moving sperm into the next segment of the ductal system, the ductus deferens, also called the vas deferens. A vasectomy severs this conduit, rendering the male effectively infertile within a few weeks of the procedure. The procedure has no hormonal effect and neither the epididymis nor the rete testis is altered.
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