Define the Whorfian hypothesis. What are the implications if this hypothesis is true? What would the Whorfian hypothesis predict about practices like the use of masculine generics on bias and inequality? Based on Hyde’s research, does this apply to adults only or does it apply to children as well? What does this say about the importance of the language we use? What is one way we can deal with this issue?

Question

What will be an ideal response?

Answer 1

The Whorfian hypothesis states that the specific language we learn influences our mental processes. If that is true, then gendered language doesn’t just reflect gender inequality, gendered language perpetuates gender inequality. This would mean that language encodes inequalities in a culture and language can normalize bias by making it a part of everyday speech. The Whorfian hypothesis would predict that practices like the use of masculine generics actually make us think that the male is normative and the female is the exception. Based on Hyde’s research, the process by which language encodes inequality and influences how we think about gender might start with very young children when they are just beginning to learn their first language. The data show that language is influential and therefore important. We need to be concerned about the effects that sexist pronoun usage has on children as their attitudes about gender and aspirations for themselves are developing. One way we can deal with this issue is using nonsexist language and modeling that language for children.