The primiparous patient at 40 weeks' gestation reports to the nurse that she has had increased pelvic pressure and increased urinary frequency. Which response by the nurse is best?
1. "Unless you have pain with urination, we don't need to worry about it."
2. "These symptoms usually mean the baby's head has descended further."
3. "Come in for an appointment today and we'll check everything out."
4. "This might indicate that the baby is no longer in a head-down position."
2
Rationale 1: Increased pelvic pressure and urinary frequency are premonitory signs of labor. These are not signs of a urinary tract infection.
Rationale 2: This is the best response because it most directly addresses what the patient has reported.
Rationale 3: There is no need for an additional appointment.
Rationale 4: The fetus's changing to a breech presentation would be experienced as fetal movement that was formerly felt in the upper abdomen but now is down in the pelvis.
You might also like to view...
Mannitol may be used to treat acute renal failure by
A) replacing extracellular volume. B) producing an osmotic diuresis. C) blocking sodium reabsorption in the loop of Henle. D) increasing cardiac output.
The nurse manager of a unit is sharing the most recent results of a patient satisfaction survey to motivate staff. This nurse manager is a _________________leader
a. Transformational b. Transactional c. Situational d. Autocratic
Medicare payment for a client admitted to the hospital is determined by a system that bases its payment on the actual diagnosis known as diagnosis-related groups (DRGs). This classification system pays a provider by:
1. The total cost for the care provided. 2. An average of the total costs. 3. The usual and customary charge. 4. A set amount for a specific condition.
The nurse is assessing the tympanic temperature of several children. The nurse documents that the child with which temperature reading has a fever?
A) 99.5°F B) 99.2°F C) 100.0°F D) 100.8°F