What support is there for the argument presented in your text that the South Asian people were more affected by Europeanization in this time period than were the Africans?
What will be an ideal response?
ANSWER:
The major point of the argument is really about European penetration into each area's culture and society. While the African population was devastated by the effects of slavery, Europeans made relatively little attempt to permanently settle in Africa, other than by establishing outposts for trade and management of resources. Europeans explored Africa and laid claim to small portions of it between 1750 and 1870, but there was little impetus for a full-scale colonial settlement operation. Most contact in this period was through exploration for academic interest or through charitable works such as missionary work. Algeria and Egypt proved to be the exception, particularly with French Algerian colonies. However, in India particularly, but also in regions where Europeans had established their trading companies, there was much more of a permanent physical presence, and nearly all of India became part of Britain's viceroy system. The British had been present for nearly 250 years at that point and had managed to accumulate territories and industry previously held by the Dutch, despite attempts by the French to dislocate Britain.
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