A 50-year-old woman who is postmenopausal is taking an aromatase inhibitor as part of a breast cancer treatment regimen. She calls her primary care NP to report that she has had hot flashes and increased vaginal discharge but no bleeding

The NP should: a. schedule her for a gynecologic examination.
b. recommend that she use a barrier method of contraception.
c. tell her to stop taking the medication and call her oncologist.
d. reassure her that these are normal side effects of the medication.


A
Any abnormal vaginal discharge should be reported immediately and should be evaluated with a gynecologic examination to rule out carcinoma. She is not showing signs of ovulation, so contraception is not necessary. She should not stop taking the medication unless the gynecologic examination is positive. These are common side effects but are not always normal.

Nursing

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Fill in the blank(s) with correct word

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