A 69-year-old female responded well to inpatient treatment with a third-generation cephalosporin. After being largely symptom free for 48 hours, the woman has developed a fever of 38.6°C and an elevated white cell count
What phenomenon may account for this patient's current clinical presentation? A) The patient may be infected with microorganisms that were resistant to the cephalosporin.
B) The patient may be experiencing a delayed (type IV) hypersensitivity reaction to the cephalosporin.
C) The patient may be developing glomerulonephritis secondary to the nephrotoxic cephalosporin.
D) The cephalosporin may have initially caused leukopenia and made the patient susceptible to secondary infection.
A
Feedback:
Patients treated with cephalosporins may be vulnerable to superinfections (infection after a previous infection, typically caused by microorganisms that are resistant to the antibiotics used earlier). Delayed hypersensitivity and renal involvement are highly unlikely. Antibiotics do not cause leukopenia.
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