Would ID50 and LD50 necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?
A. Yes, because the number of viruses that infect 50% of a test population should also kill 50% of that test population.
B. No, because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID50 value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD50 value). A prime example of this is the rhinovirus (common cold virus).
C.
No, because very few viruses are lethal, yet many are highly infectious. The two values should ALWAYS be different.
D. Yes, because what we're actually describing here is infection/killing of individual CELLS, not of entire organisms. If a cell is infected, it will always be killed.
B
You might also like to view...
Fluorescent antibodies can be used to separate mixtures of cells into relatively pure populations with a fluorescence cytometer
Indicate whether the statement is true or false.
The average adult carries 10 times more microbial cells (1014) than human cells (average about 1013).
Answer the following statement true (T) or false (F)
What might be the best treatment for bladder cancer?
a. radiation therapy b. surgery c. chemotherapy d. gene therapy
A radiation dose of 400 rem, if untreated, causes death within 60 days of about
____________________ percent of people exposed to it. Fill in the blank(s) with the appropriate word(s).