A 60-year-old patient who is pale and weak has a hemoglobin level of 9 gm/dL. The patient states, "I eat a healthful diet. Why am I not well?" How should the nurse respond?
1. "You might not be eating as well as you think."
2. "This happens as you get older."
3. "As we age, the amount of iron absorbed by our body decreases."
4. "Menopause is responsible for these changes."
Correct Answer: 3
A reduction in the absorption rate of ingested iron is a normal part of aging. Dietary modifications might be indicated to counteract life-span–related changes. Telling the patient dietary intake is not what she believes it to be is potentially argumentative and does not provide education regarding the underlying cause of the problem. The iron deficiency is indirectly related to aging, but it is the responsibility of the nurse to provide as much information as possible. The patient is likely well past menopause, and blaming this life event for the difficulty being experienced does not fulfill the nurse's responsibility.
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A. Obtain a blood specimen per standing order. B. Ignore the patient, as this is most likely part of her psychotic behavior. C. Call the charge nurse and physician immediately. D. Administer an additional dose of prn antipsychotic medication.
What statement correctly explains the nerve impulse transmission?
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The most common type of glaucoma is ____________________.
Fill in the blank(s) with the appropriate word(s).
Describe four client rights
a. b. c. d.