Refer to above figure. If trade were to open up between P and R, where would the world terms of trade locate in the figure above (somewhere on the PC/PF axis)? Would relative wages (w/r) in the two countries become equal? Is this consistent with the
Heckscher-Ohlin model? Explain.
The terms of trade would settle somewhere between the two autarky relative prices on the PC/PF axis. The relative wages (w/r) will be lower than the highest and higher than the lowest on the vertical axis above, but will not coincide. This last result is in contradiction to the factor price equalization expectation we have from the model.
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