Is Europe an optimum currency area?
What will be an ideal response?
An open question. I think yes, the area's economy is closely integrated with its own: most EU members export from 10 to 20 percent of their output to other EU members. But still, the law of one price does not apply to many products such as the auto market. In 1998, prices for the BMW 520i varied by as much as 29.5 percent between the United Kingdom and the Netherlands. Prices for the Ford Fiesta varied as much as 43.5 percent between the United Kingdom and Portugal!
The text is more critical, claiming: "The extent of intra-European trade is not large enough, however, to give us an overwhelming reason for believing the European Union itself is an optimum currency area." Also, the text cites the fact that may be price convergence has more to do with Internet marketing than optimum currency area. The book concludes that on balance, it seems doubtful that the 1992 measures have yet pushed Europe dramatically closer to being an optimum currency area.
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If the inverse demand curve a monopoly faces is p = 100 - 2Q, MC is constant at 16, and the government imposes an $8 per unit specific tax on the monopoly, the deadweight loss solely due to the tax is
A) $88. B) $152. C) $361. D) $441.
When a country eliminates tariffs and other trade restrictions, intending to promote economic growth, it is pursuing _______–oriented policies
Fill in the blank(s) with correct word
When the price system fails to generate an efficient allocation of resources
A. too few or too many goods will be produced. B. consumers will spend less. C. the market will always correct it. D. business will produce more.
Figure 5-12
In Figure 5-12, the move in the consumer equilibrium from A to B shows that
A. beer is an inferior good, but wine is a normal good. B. wine is an inferior good, but beer is a normal good. C. both beer and wine are normal goods. D. both beer and wine are inferior goods.