The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient prescribed prednisone to be taken on alternate days. The patient asks why he cannot take half a pill every day. What is the nurse's best response?
A) To eliminate adverse side effects
B) To prolong therapeutic effects
C) To prevent steroid tolerance
D) To decrease adrenal suppression
D
Feedback:
Alternate-day maintenance therapy is used with short-acting drugs whenever possible to decrease the risk of adrenal suppression. Alternate-day therapy would not eliminate adverse effects or prolong therapeutic effects. There is no such thing as steroid tolerance.
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The nurse is receiving the post-tonsillectomy and post-adenoidectomy client in the postanesthesia care unit (PACU). The nurse aide is assisting the client from the stretcher to the bed. The client remains drowsy from anesthesia
In which position would the nurse instruct the nurse aide to place the client? A) On a side B) Supine C) Semi-Fowler's D) High-Fowler's
A patient with Parkinson's disease is deficient in the neurotransmitter that affects behavior (attention, emotions) and fine motor movements. What neurotransmitter imbalance is associated with this condition?
A) Serotonin B) Enkephalin C) Norepinephrine D) Dopamine
An older client is diagnosed with hemolytic anemia. What will the nurse teach the client about this disorder?
1. It is caused by blood loss. 2. It will be treated with folic acid. 3. It causes the red blood cells to be misshaped. 4. It is associated with decreased immature red blood cells.
Select the statement that best explains the reason why propofol is the preferred agent for the induction and maintenance of anesthesia.
A. Propofol does not lead to the development of nausea and vomiting, nor does it accumulate in the tissues. B. Propofol does not fully depress the medulla, even in large doses. C. Propofol does not depress cardiovascular and respiratory activity. D. None of these are correct.