Why do we have (1–?)100% confidence in the interval the interval (m_1-m_2 )±t_(?/2) (s_(m_1-m_2 ))?
a. Because (1–?)100% of all such intervals will capture (m_1-m_2 ).
b. Because (1–?)100% of all such intervals will capture (?_1-?_2 ).
c. Because (1–?)100% of all values of (m_1-m_2 ) will fall in the interval.
d. Because the probability is (1–?) that
(?_1-?_2 ) is in the interval.
Ans: B
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