Why were the Spanish and Portuguese initially able to trade for slaves in West Africa?
a) There was an existing slave trade within Africa and with neighboring regions.
b) European armies captured and transported slaves from the interior of Africa.
c) Slaves were treated fairly well under the Portuguese.
d) African rulers were always willing to participate.
Answer: a
You might also like to view...
Why was Justinian's collection of laws heavily studied in later centuries?
A. It promoted the notion of a highly centralized state. B. It contained many otherwise lost early Christian teachings. C. There were few examples of past legal codes to draw from. D. Medieval rulers saw themselves as heirs of the Byzantine emperors.
Which of the following is not one of the theories about how America was originally settled?
A) ? Europeans sailed across the Atlantic in leather boats during the pre-Christian era. B) ? Siberian hunters crossed from Asia to North American during the last ice age. C) ? Humans arrived by boat and followed the coast southward from Alaska. D) ? Humans arrived in multiple migrations E) ? Hunters from Asia dispersed themselves over much of North America.
One result of the phalanx as the dominant form of combat in Greece was that __________.
A. wars tended to be short and decisive B. conflict between cities were long and costly C. Greek armies overwhelmed neighboring peoples D. battles raged over large areas
In the Northeast, the rise of livestock specialization reduced the amount of
a. land under cultivation. b. woodlands. c. food crops. d. grain planted. e. all of these choices