A 60-year-old patient with a recent history of head trauma and a long-term history of hyperten-sion presents to the ER for changes in mental status. MRI reveals that the patient has experienced a subarachnoid hemorrhage
What does the nurse suspect caused this type of stroke?
a. Rheumatic heart disease
b. Thrombi
c. Aneurysm
d. Hypotension
ANS: C
The primary causative factor of subarachnoid hemorrhagic bleeding is an aneurysm, not thrombi, which would lead to thrombotic stroke. A thrombi would lead to a CVA from blockage, but not to hemorrhagic bleeding. Hypertension, not hypotension, would lead to a hemorrhagic stroke. Rheumatic heart disease is not associated with subarachnoid hemorrhages.
You might also like to view...
When the nurse assesses the client's abdominal superficial reflexes, the umbilicus moves in the direction of the skin stimulated. The nurse documents this observation as:
1. A positive (+) response. 2. A negative (-) response. 3. An absence of response. 4. A questionable response.
A client is receiving tacrolimus (Prograf) to prevent organ rejection. Which of the following is a nursing considerations associated with this medication?
1. Give with cyclosporine (Sandimmune). 2. Assess for hypoglycemia. 3. Give with grapefruit juice. 4. Assess platelet count for thrombocytopenia.
What was the significance of the 1979 Surgeon General's report?
a. It planned the goals and priorities for the entire Veterans Administration medical system. b. It vastly increased funding for health promotion activities. c. It identified the use of tobacco as a cause of lung cancer. d. It created national goals for promoting health and preventing disease.
A client has a prescription for a medication that is administered via an inhaler. To determine if the client requires a spacer for the inhaler, the nurse will determine the:
1. Dosage of medication required 2. Coordination of the client 3. Schedule of administration 4. Use of a dry powder inhaler