If an X-linked disorder is lethal to the affected individual prior to the age at which one reaches reproductive maturation, the lethality will be expressed only in males. Why is this so?
A) This is not true. We will see the lethality in females as well.
B) As it's a lethal allele, it will kill the homozygous recessive first. These are the males.
C) The only sources of the lethal allele in the population are heterozygous females who are "carriers" and do not express the disorder.
D) At the cellular level, the protein will work less well in the male's cells.
E) Because it's sex-limited inheritance, females do not demonstrate the phenotype.
Answer: C
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