A 31-year-old woman with normal ovaries, a normal prolactin level, and an intact pituitary gland is undergoing initial pharmacologic treatment of anovulation. Which medication would the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this patient?
1. Clomiphene citrate (Clomid or Serophene)
2. Glucophage (Metformin)
3. Human menopausal gonadotropins (hMGs)
4. Bromocriptine (Parlodel)
Correct Answer: 1
Rationale 1: Clomiphene citrate (Clomid or Serophene) is a common first-line therapy for inducing ovulation in women with normal ovaries, normal prolactin level, and intact pituitary gland.
Rationale 2: Oral hypoglycemic agents such as glucophage (Metformin) are used for inducing ovulation in women with polycystic ovary disease (PCOS).
Rationale 3: Human menopausal gonadotropins (hMGs) is a second line of therapy in women who fail to ovulate or conceive with clomiphene citrate therapy.
Rationale 4: Bromocriptine (Parlodel) is used to treat hyperprolactinemia accompanied by anovulation.
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