Given the following Taylor rule:Target federal funds rate = natural rate of interest + current inflation + 1/2(inflation gap) + 1/2(output gap);Since the coefficients on the inflation and output gaps are equal, does this mean the central bank will respond to a one percent increase in inflation with the same change in the target rate as they would initiate from a one percent increase in the output gap? Explain.

What will be an ideal response?


The coefficient on the gaps are the same, however, the rule has a bias toward inflation in that it includes the current rate of inflation as a term. If the rate of inflation increases by 1 percent the target interest rate actually would increase by 1.5 percent since the current inflation rate would be 1 percent higher and the additional 0.5 comes from the inflation gap times 1/2. If the output gap increases by 1 percent the target interest rate will be increased by 0.5 percent.

Economics

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What will be an ideal response?

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