Your patient is a 33-year-old female who is alert and in significant distress. She describes a one-week history of diffuse lower left quadrant abdominal pain that became acutely worse and specific 1/2 hour ago. She has not had her menstrual period in four months. HR = 120, BP = 72/48, RR = 20. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to have contributed to her current condition?

A) Previous ectopic pregnancy
B) Tubal ligation
C) Oral contraceptive use
D) Previous pelvic inflammatory disease


C

Health Professions

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