According to Keynesian economists, when the price level is constant, an upward shift in the aggregate expenditure curve is associated with
a. a rightward shift (increase) in the aggregate demand curve
b. a leftward shift (decrease) in the aggregate demand curve
c. a rightward shift (increase) in the aggregate supply curve
d. a leftward shift (decrease) in the aggregate supply curve
e. no change in either the aggregate demand or aggregate supply curves
A
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How does the policy trilemma help to explain the failure of Argentina's currency board?
What will be an ideal response?
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