A client has a brain abscess and is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The spouse questions the use of the drug, saying the client does not have a seizure disorder. What response by the nurse is best?
a. "Increased pressure from the abscess can cause seizures."
b. "Preventing febrile seizures with an abscess is important."
c. "Seizures always occur in clients with brain abscesses."
d. "This drug is used to sedate the client with an abscess."
ANS: A
Brain abscesses can lead to seizures as a complication. The nurse should explain this to the spouse. Phenytoin is not used to prevent febrile seizures. Seizures are possible but do not always occur in clients with brain abscesses. This drug is not used for sedation.
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