A 38-year-old male is upset about his low sperm count and visits a "practitioner" who commonly advertises his miracle cures of sterility. The practitioner is a quack who treats conditions of low sperm count with megadoses of testosterone. Although his patients experience a huge surge in libido, their sperm count is even lower after hormone treatment. Explain why.
What will be an ideal response?
Megadoses of testosterone would inhibit hypothalamic release of GnRH and may act directly on the anterior pituitary to inhibit gonadotropin (FSH) release. Spermatogenesis is inhibited in the absence of FSH stimulation.
Anatomy & Physiology
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Anatomy & Physiology
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Anatomy & Physiology
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Anatomy & Physiology