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During perfect combustion in an internal combustion engine, the only output would be:

One of the six principal air pollutants regulated by the EPA is nitrogen dioxide.

Technician A says one of the six principal air pollutants regulated by the EPA is nitrogen. Technician B says carbon dioxide contributes to global warming.

4

When unburned hydrocarbons are exposed to oxides of nitrogen and sunlight, what is produced?

5

Under ideal combustion, all the oxygen and all the hydrocarbons are chemically recombined to produce carbon monoxide and water.

6

Technician A says under ideal combustion, all the nitrogen entering the combustion chamber will leave the combustion chamber unchanged. Technician B says under ideal combustion, all the oxygen and all the hydrocarbons are chemically recombined to produce carbon dioxide and water. Who is correct?

7

Photochemical smog is produced when:

8

If the fuel filler cap leaks, what emissions gas will be allowed to enter the atmosphere?

9

Particulate matter (PM) is a microscopic form of gaseous air pollution.

10

ASM 25/25 test is an enhanced inspection and maintenance program performed in lieu of the full I/M240 test.

11

Particulate matter (PM) is generally referred to as soot and smoke.

12

The EPA regulates eight principal pollutants.

13

OBD II provides a universal OBD 16-pin DLC for all vehicles manufactured for the U.S. market since 1996.

14

When a DTC is set, the PCM also stores the operating parameters of the emission control system at the time of the event in a data program called:

15

Technician A says that all P1XXX DTCs are for manufacturers' specific diagnostic trouble codes. Technician B says that all P0XXX DTCs are for generic diagnostic trouble codes. Who is correct?

16

OBD II was mandated by the Federal Environmental Protection Agency to be installed on all passenger vehicles beginning with what model year?

17

On an OBD II vehicle, when the ignition key is on and the engine is not running, the MIL should:

18

Technician A says not all manufacturers provide freeze frame data.Technician B says one of the mandated features of OBD II is the inclusion of freeze frame data. Who is correct?

19

Technician A says that the DLC may be located under the hood on an OBD II vehicle. Technician B says that the DLC may be located anywhere that the manufacturer chooses on an OBD II vehicle. Who is correct?

20

OBD II provides a universal OBD 16-pin DLC for all manufacturers' vehicles since 1990.

21

OBD II systems are highly efficient and only illuminate the malfunction indicator light when an emissions failure has occurred that will raise emission levels above 1.5 times the FTP levels.

22

OBD II regulations require vehicle manufacturers to use the same terms for the same type of components on all manufacturers' vehicles.

23

Technician A says that the DLC on an OBD II vehicle has 18 pins. Technician B says that the pin assignment for the DLC on an OBD II vehicle has not changed since 1996. Who is correct?

24

The two main categories of OBD II monitors are the:

25

OBD II does not require the inclusion of freeze frame data.

26

While discussing digital signals:Technician A says the leading edge of a digital signal represents a decreasing voltage. Technician B says duty cycle is the frequency at which a voltage signal occurs. Who is correct?

27

If everything in the system is functioning smoothly, both LTFT and STFT values should be close to 0.

28

Technician A says all computer system problems can be solved by using a scan tester. Technician B says many computer-controlled components can be tested with an ohmmeter or voltmeter. Who is correct?

29

The DSO sampling time is at least 20 times faster than other automotive testers.

30

An OBD II scan tool generally offers greater control and more in-depth service information than was available to the service technician with earlier-generation systems and tools.

31

While discussing OBD II systems:Technician A says if a misfire condition threatens engine or catalyst damage, the PCM flashes the MIL. Technician B says the PCM illuminates the MIL if a defect causes emission levels to exceed 1.5 times the emission standards for that model year. Who is correct?

32

Diagnostic scan tester operation varies depending on the make and model of the scan tool.

33

While discussing digital storage oscilloscopes:Technician A says the DSO shows the signals as they occur. Technician B says the DSO reads signals, stores them, and then displays them. Who is correct?

34

On an OBD II emission control system, both pre-catalyst and post-catalyst oxygen sensors are used.

35

While discussing scan testers:Technician A says scan testers have the capability to diagnose various computer systems on a vehicle. Technician B says scan testers have the capability to display data and DTCs and perform many other diagnostic functions. Who is correct?

36

The CAN protocol will never be a required protocol for all manufactured vehicles.

37

The comprehensive component monitor will use one-trip logic when determining when to set a DTC and illuminate the MIL.

38

Which of the OBD II monitors checks circuit integrity?

39

A misfire occurs when the air/fuel mixture in the combustion chamber ignites and complete combustion occurs.

40

A Type B misfire is one that could cause immediate damage to the catalytic converter, and the misfire monitor will cause the MIL to flash.

41

As a result of a misfire, unburned hydrocarbons (HC) are exhausted from the combustion chamber into the exhaust system, where they enter the catalytic converter.

42

A Type A misfire is a misfire that will cause emission levels to exceed 1.5 times the FTP and will set a code and turn on the MIL on the second consecutive trip where it is detected.

43

The continuous monitors are the catalyst efficiency, misfire, and continuous component monitors.

44

Technician A says the comprehensive component monitor continues to run until all sensors have been tested once. Technician B says the rationality test checks to see if the input values from a sensor make sense, based on the current operating conditions at the time the test is performed. Who is correct?

45

The comprehensive component monitor begins to run shortly after the vehicle is started.

46

Technician A says the fuel system monitor may not be allowed to run if a pending code is stored. Technician B says the comprehensive component monitor will use one-trip logic when determining when to set a DTC and illuminate the MIL. Who is correct?

47

The continuous monitors consist of three separate monitors.

48

Technician A says a random misfire or a multiple cylinder misfire will be recorded as a P0300 code. Technician B says that a MIL that is flashing is an indication of an intermittent emission system failure that is not currently occurring. Who is correct?

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